http-01 here the server only show that he know the public key of the client. Token + Hash(publicUserKey)
At least the server have the information for which domain he is proving.
tls-sni-01 here the only task is that the server have to reply with and certificate with specified subjectAlternativeName
<encoded(token)>.<encoded(userPublicKey)>.acme.invalid
The simpleHTTP not only check that the server handle the domain, it also checked that the server knows the privateUserKey so why not using simpleHTTP via HTTP if there are HTTPS-Concerns about stupid admin with default Servers?
Option 1)
For tls-sni we could request .<encoded(token)>.<encoded(userPublicKey)>.acme.invalid
And the server response should contain two alternative names.
.<encoded(token)>.<encoded(userPublicKey)>.acme.invalid
encoded(SHA1withRSA(.<encoded(token)>.<encoded(userPublicKey)>.acme.invalid , userKey)).SHA1withRSA.acme.invalid
So he proves that he have ht private user key and he know for which domain he is proving:
So in this case the server does not require to have access to the private user key.
He only need access to the public key but than can verify that the request was issued by some person who have the users private key. That mean we have an two way identification.
Hi, this is wrong. The token is transited in the verification. So it is no problem for example with an PHP Script
to replay to any challenge without knowing the private user key at all.
http01 only require knowledge of public key
tls-sni-01 require no knowledge at all to fulfill the challenge.
I dont think a replay is that easy, when I tried to request the same domians later I got a completely different text (assuming manual relies on htttp01) so it cant be just the pure hash of the pubkey.
@klk maybe but why do not use one place for discussion letsencrypt relevant topic’s?
Personal i do not like to follow different mail lists, forums and irc for one topic.
With http-01 you prove knowledge of the private key when you accept a challenge (you send a JWS with your keyAuthorization value). So I don’t see the need of additional data in the http-01 response file itself.
Bad User Request DOMAIN-X were he was able to install an Script or the Server auto replay with matching SAN.
Mean if DOMAIN-XY is requested he generate an “one time cert” with SAN Entry DOMAIN-XY same would happen with
.acme.invalid
So this is no prove that the hoster wan’t to authorize the CSR from someone.
With PHP injection someone can request authorization without that the domain owner can get the private key.
You have an HTTPS Server that will response to any SNI with an Matching Selfsigned Certificate.
This is used for debuging or for example for some types of fw devices that use non official CA’s.
This Device also Host the domain www.interesting-bank.com
Now i as an attacker place an request for “www.interesting-bank.com” and select “tls-sni-01” challenge.
LE will now connect to the ip for “www.interesting-bank.com” and say hostnameInfo ..acme.invalid
The returned certificate will contain ..acme.invalid (Challenge OK)
well probably it would be more helpful if LE just spits out a cert from for example our Happy hacker fake CA which should then be put into the server and if that cert is found then it’s okay.
@My1 yeah this would be one option. Because this show at least that the requester have access to the system.
The other would be to include the requested FQDN and expected an second SAN entry that prove the possession of the users private key. Maybe even an third with prove of possession of private key for the new cert.